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PostAug 09, 2016#101

Well, I suppose it's a long shot, but I really would love to see the GOP get simply walloped all up and down the ticket, coast to coast.

Throw all the obstructionist bums out! The Trump effect could be felt for years! :)

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PostAug 09, 2016#102

The way things are trending it does look like MO could come back into play. The fact that Tim Kaine grew up in KC, MO and attended/graduated from Mizzou only pushes it further toward contention.

But I agree Ebsy that significant time and $$$ probably won't be spent here since it may be put to better use trying to lock down more contested and more Dem leaning states (NC, NH, IA, AZ, GA, NV) to establish a sort of fire wall. If they got it I think MO would be more of a collateral victory for the Dems than a hard fought battle.

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PostAug 09, 2016#103

Northside Neighbor wrote:Well, I suppose it's a long shot, but I really would love to see the GOP get simply walloped all up and down the ticket, coast to coast.

Throw all the obstructionist bums out! The Trump effect could be felt for years! :)
I think in the long term Clinton winning could be the best thing for the GOP, other than obviously screwing SCOTUS for at least a generation. But I firmly believe that she'll be a one-term candidate. Lost recently in how comically awful Trump has been is what a terrible candidate Hillary is. She's going to be a one-term president because 1) She's hated by a large number of Americans and an overwhelming number of Americans don't trust her 2) Parties rarely win four straight presidential elections. It's only happened three times in American history 1) the Democrat-Republicans with Jefferson-Madison-Monroe 2) the Republicans during Reconstruction 3) the Democrats when FDR/Truman combined to win 5 elections.

Trump is going to get absolutely obliterated in November and the GOP is going to re-group around its rising stars like Nikki Haley, who would be a nightmare for Hillary in an election: a successful governor who also happens to be both a woman and a minority and who kept her distance from Trump. If the party is able to embrace the conservative/libertarian version that Paul Ryan would like the party to be then it should be fine. Ironically, the party's problems this year are in nominating a lifelong Democrat whose election strategy is to recruit other lifelong Democrats at the expense of traditional Republicans.

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PostAug 09, 2016#104

A liberal SCOTUS by itself makes Clinton winning a long-term loss for the GOP. Liberal SCOTUS is less friendly to gerrymandering, voter suppression, and campaign finance rule hostility, plus of course various GOP culture war issues on guns, abortion, EPA regulations, etc.

I don't care if Clinton wins Missouri, but I would love if Trumps' nega-coattails help sink Eric "I know how to deal with liberals BLAT BLAT BLAT" Greitens.

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PostAug 09, 2016#105

MarkHaversham wrote:A liberal SCOTUS by itself makes Clinton winning a long-term loss for the GOP. Liberal SCOTUS is less friendly to gerrymandering, voter suppression, and campaign finance rule hostility, plus of course various GOP culture war issues on guns, abortion, EPA regulations, etc.
True. A liberal SCOTUS is also less friendly to explicit Constitutional amendments (particularly the 2nd, 5th, and 10th) and much more friendly to completely making **** up.

I'd call that a loss for America, but that's just my opinion. To each his own.

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PostAug 09, 2016#106

Well, debating the relative merits of restrictions to amendments probably belongs in a Debate thread more than the Election thread, but what does a liberal SCOTUS have to do with the 5th amendment? I would think that weakening protections for the accused would generally be a hobby of the right wing.

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PostAug 10, 2016#107

MarkHaversham wrote:Well, debating the relative merits of restrictions to amendments probably belongs in a Debate thread more than the Election thread, but what does a liberal SCOTUS have to do with the 5th amendment? I would think that weakening protections for the accused would generally be a hobby of the right wing.
It's the Democrats pushing for the terror watch list ban for gun purchases, which whether you agree with the 2A or not denies people rights without due process.

If I remember correctly, this is one thing that we actually agreed on.

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PostAug 10, 2016#108

Well, that's a fair point, but I don't think a conservative SCOTUS judge could be better counted on to strike down the extrajudicial terror watch list, and the Dem version would've at least provided for a day in court to remove yourself.

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PostSep 02, 2016#109

shimmy wrote:
MarkHaversham wrote:A liberal SCOTUS by itself makes Clinton winning a long-term loss for the GOP. Liberal SCOTUS is less friendly to gerrymandering, voter suppression, and campaign finance rule hostility, plus of course various GOP culture war issues on guns, abortion, EPA regulations, etc.
True. A liberal SCOTUS is also less friendly to explicit Constitutional amendments (particularly the 2nd, 5th, and 10th) and much more friendly to completely making **** up.

I'd call that a loss for America, but that's just my opinion. To each his own.
A liberal SCOTUS would be more likely to "make sh*t up" than a conservative one? Why?

A liberal SCOTUS is less friendly to our constitution? Are you sure? Or is it just that they might be more likely to interpret it in a way that you don't like?

Also, saying they'd tack more left on controversial issues ("gerrymandering, voter suppression, and campaign finance rule hostility, guns, abortion, EPA regulations," etc.) is a given, but countering that with "they'd be less friendly to explicit Constitutional amendments" is a) baseless and b) a B.S. false equivalency.

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PostSep 02, 2016#110

Dogtown Dog wrote:
shimmy wrote:
MarkHaversham wrote:A liberal SCOTUS by itself makes Clinton winning a long-term loss for the GOP. Liberal SCOTUS is less friendly to gerrymandering, voter suppression, and campaign finance rule hostility, plus of course various GOP culture war issues on guns, abortion, EPA regulations, etc.
True. A liberal SCOTUS is also less friendly to explicit Constitutional amendments (particularly the 2nd, 5th, and 10th) and much more friendly to completely making **** up.

I'd call that a loss for America, but that's just my opinion. To each his own.
A liberal SCOTUS would be more likely to "make sh*t up" than a conservative one? Why?

A liberal SCOTUS is less friendly to our constitution? Are you sure? Or is it just that they might be more likely to interpret it in a way that you don't like?

Also, saying they'd tack more left on controversial issues ("gerrymandering, voter suppression, and campaign finance rule hostility, guns, abortion, EPA regulations," etc.) is a given, but countering that with "they'd be less friendly to explicit Constitutional amendments" is a) baseless and b) a B.S. false equivalency.
And on the flip side, just because a court ruling gives victory to a policy decision that you support does not mean that the decision was constitutionally correct. Roe v. Wade is notorious for its stunning interpretation of the right to privacy that the majority somehow got out of the 14th Amendment. Likewise, even if you support gay marriage, Obergefell is an embarrassing display of Constitutional logic.

In both of these cases, two of the most high profile cases of the last 50 years, liberal justices used the 14th Amendment to create rights and laws out of thin air. The purpose of the 14th Amendment is to ensure rights that are already recognized by the Constitution, specifically the intent was to ensure rights for freed slaves and black Americans. Social issues such as abortion and gay marriage are obvious examples of issues that, constitutionally, fall under the 10th Amendment and should be reserved to the states.

Conversely, the right of individuals to bear arms is explicitly guaranteed in the Bill of Rights. It's got an amendment all to itself that guarantees this right. And if you really want to make the "it's talking about the militia" argument, then I would encourage you to use the search engine as I've had this argument numerous times on this board.

You may disagree with some of my points here, which is fine as I welcome challenging and respectful debate as Haversham and others can attest to, but to dismiss them as "baseless...BS" is a rather unconvincing argument. In fact, it's not even an argument at all. It's an unsupported opinion.

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PostSep 02, 2016#111

In the case of Roe v. Wade, it was a 7-2 decision made by a 6-3 conservative-leaning court (Douglas, Brennan and Marshall being scored as liberals). The 2 dissenters were Rehnquist and White, White being a mildly-conservative Kennedy appointee. So the notion that Roe v. Wade was a "liberal" court decision doesn't really stand up to evidence, whatever you think of the decision's merits.

Obergefell rests quite clearly on the 14th:
All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.
The court found that freedom to marry regardless of your sexuality is a fundamental right that falls under the 14th. Note that the text of the 14th does not say "this clause only applies to slaves, not to other classes of people we might want to discriminate against".

Regarding the 2nd,
A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.
While the practical interpretation of this text is open to judicial interpretation, it's disingenuous to act as though tying gun rights to militias is some crazy modern liberal invention and not a perfectly reasonable interpretation of the text. To say nothing of the fact that every right in the Constitution is subject to regulation.

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PostSep 02, 2016#112

shimmy wrote:
Dogtown Dog wrote:
shimmy wrote:
True. A liberal SCOTUS is also less friendly to explicit Constitutional amendments (particularly the 2nd, 5th, and 10th) and much more friendly to completely making **** up.

I'd call that a loss for America, but that's just my opinion. To each his own.
A liberal SCOTUS would be more likely to "make sh*t up" than a conservative one? Why?

A liberal SCOTUS is less friendly to our constitution? Are you sure? Or is it just that they might be more likely to interpret it in a way that you don't like?

Also, saying they'd tack more left on controversial issues ("gerrymandering, voter suppression, and campaign finance rule hostility, guns, abortion, EPA regulations," etc.) is a given, but countering that with "they'd be less friendly to explicit Constitutional amendments" is a) baseless and b) a B.S. false equivalency.
And on the flip side, just because a court ruling gives victory to a policy decision that you support does not mean that the decision was constitutionally correct. Roe v. Wade is notorious for its stunning interpretation of the right to privacy that the majority somehow got out of the 14th Amendment. Likewise, even if you support gay marriage, Obergefell is an embarrassing display of Constitutional logic.

In both of these cases, two of the most high profile cases of the last 50 years, liberal justices used the 14th Amendment to create rights and laws out of thin air. The purpose of the 14th Amendment is to ensure rights that are already recognized by the Constitution, specifically the intent was to ensure rights for freed slaves and black Americans. Social issues such as abortion and gay marriage are obvious examples of issues that, constitutionally, fall under the 10th Amendment and should be reserved to the states.

Conversely, the right of individuals to bear arms is explicitly guaranteed in the Bill of Rights. It's got an amendment all to itself that guarantees this right. And if you really want to make the "it's talking about the militia" argument, then I would encourage you to use the search engine as I've had this argument numerous times on this board.

You may disagree with some of my points here, which is fine as I welcome challenging and respectful debate as Haversham and others can attest to, but to dismiss them as "baseless...BS" is a rather unconvincing argument. In fact, it's not even an argument at all. It's an unsupported opinion.
You're falsely equating "friendliness" to constitutional provisions with interpreting those provisions in a way that you prefer. There is no evidence a "liberal" SCOTUS is more or less likely to actually uphold the constitution than a "conservative" one, making your assertions, in fact, baseless.

But yeah, that I think your posts are bullsh*t is obviously an opinion.

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PostSep 02, 2016#113

MarkHaversham wrote:In the case of Roe v. Wade, it was a 7-2 decision made by a 6-3 conservative-leaning court (Douglas, Brennan and Marshall being scored as liberals). The 2 dissenters were Rehnquist and White, White being a mildly-conservative Kennedy appointee. So the notion that Roe v. Wade was a "liberal" court decision doesn't really stand up to evidence, whatever you think of the decision's merits.
It's a fallacy to assume that because a justice was nominated by a conservative that such a justice could never rule liberally (or vice versa). Your logic is the same logic that some conservatives use when they try to accuse the Democrats as being the party of segregation because the Democrats of the 50's and 60's opposed it. Likewise, it's false to present Roe as being anything other than a liberal decision just because Republican justices were for it. As we know, the parties have evolved a lot over the past seven decades, and that's not even taking into account that justices appointed during the Eisenhower administration, for example, were appointed long before the culture wars began (let alone before they became the priority in judicial nominations).
MarkHaversham wrote:Obergefell rests quite clearly on the 14th:


The court found that freedom to marry regardless of your sexuality is a fundamental right that falls under the 14th. Note that the text of the 14th does not say "this clause only applies to slaves, not to other classes of people we might want to discriminate against".
Right, so define "the right to marry." No one is against marriage equality. Everyone agrees that every marriage should be equal in the eyes of the law. The question is "What is marriage?" The Constitution doesn't even mention marriage, let alone define it. But what has defined marriage is human history, and virtually every civilization that has ever existed has defined marriage as consisting of a union between members of the opposite sex. Even civilizations that celebrated homosexuality, like the Greeks and the Romans, defined marriage in this way.

The reason for this is because, in terms of public policy, this makes perfect sense. The only interest the government has in marriage is the promotion of stable families that inherently promote a stable society. This is done through marriage by binding fathers to their children and the mother of their children. That's the reason marriage evolved in human societies.

The flaw in the reasoning of Obergefell is that they assumed the definition of marriage to be, as you're doing when you refer to "the right to marry", as being a romantic contract between two consenting adults. There are two major problems with this.

First, it's not the Supreme Court's place to decide what the definition is. And it's certainly not the place of the Supreme Court to redefine it from what the democratic process in the majority of states defined it to be. The responsibility to define OR redefine social institutions should be reserved to society. And in our Constitutional Republic that is an issue reserved to the states by the 10th Amendment. That's why I say that even those who are happy with the result of Obergefell shouldn't necessarily agree with the logic used to support it.

Second, removing the historical and practical purpose of marriage (promotion of stable families and societies) from the definition of marriage and replacing it with a romantic contract between consenting adults leads to this very important question: Why? What business does the government have in regulating the relationships of consenting adults? At this point, it makes more sense to remove government from marriage entirely.

Furthermore, if marriage simply is a romantic contract between consenting adults, then what restricts it to just two? Why can't the same-sex throuple or opposite-sex quartet also get married? Why does it even have to be romantic? Why can't two sisters who live their whole lives together and love each other as sisters contractually agree to get married to receive the benefits? And what's the basis for it then being permanent? If it's simply a contract between consenting adults, then why don't we just do away with the permanency expectation and allow marriages to expire after 5, 10, or 15 years at which point there's an option to renew if there's still consent?

You see, once you remove the opposite-sex requirement from the definition of marriage then every other component of it becomes meaningless. And at this point you have to ask whether you're really arguing for marriage equality or whether you're actually advocating for its abolition.
MarkHaversham wrote:Regarding the 2nd,
A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.
While the practical interpretation of this text is open to judicial interpretation, it's disingenuous to act as though tying gun rights to militias is some crazy modern liberal invention and not a perfectly reasonable interpretation of the text. To say nothing of the fact that every right in the Constitution is subject to regulation.
It's a perfectly reasonable interpretation of the text from someone who just reads it without any concern for context or definition. For anyone who has actually studied the law then yes, it is a crazy modern liberal invention.

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PostSep 02, 2016#114

shimmy wrote: It's a fallacy to assume that because a justice was nominated by a conservative that such a justice could never rule liberally (or vice versa). Your logic is the same logic that some conservatives use when they try to accuse the Democrats as being the party of segregation because the Democrats of the 50's and 60's opposed it. Likewise, it's false to present Roe as being anything other than a liberal decision just because Republican justices were for it. As we know, the parties have evolved a lot over the past seven decades, and that's not even taking into account that justices appointed during the Eisenhower administration, for example, were appointed long before the culture wars began (let alone before they became the priority in judicial nominations).
I did not assess the court by political party, but rather by using Martin-Quinn scores (which is why I said it was a 6-3 split, rather than 7-2). Also, I don't think "the justices didn't know this was a culture-war issue they were supposed to be taking partisan sides on" is an argument in favor of RvW being a partisan decision. Anyway, I'm not saying M-Q scores were given to us by an infallible god, but do you have a basis for rating the 1973 court as overwhelmingly liberal, aside from disagreeing with it on Roe v. Wade?
Right, so define "the right to marry." No one is against marriage equality. Everyone agrees that every marriage should be equal in the eyes of the law. The question is "What is marriage?" The Constitution doesn't even mention marriage, let alone define it. But what has defined marriage is human history, and virtually every civilization that has ever existed has defined marriage as consisting of a union between members of the opposite sex. Even civilizations that celebrated homosexuality, like the Greeks and the Romans, defined marriage in this way.
You're quite right that marriage is not defined in the constitution, which is why we have a Supreme Court to answer questions of how the constitutional rights relate to marriage. The court decided that marriage was a right belonging to all couples, not an institution that did or should exist solely for the purpose of heterosexual nuclear family stability. I suspect a key ingredient to this line of thinking is that allowing gays to marry does not hurt or really impact in any way the rights or lifestyles of anyone else. Nobody is forcing you to do anything except acknowledge a right for gay people to exist and associate freely. While historical precedent can be valuable, it's not sufficient to argue that we should continue discriminating because we've been doing so for a long time, therefore we should allow gay marriage or teaching literacy to minorities or whatever. Generally speaking, the court takes a dim view to restricting people's rights, absent those rights causing clear harm to others.

Regardless, as you pointed out, the Constitution does not give a clear guidance on the limits of marriage rights, which puts this issue squarely in the purview of the SCOTUS, no law-twisting necessary.
MarkHaversham wrote:Regarding the 2nd,
A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.
While the practical interpretation of this text is open to judicial interpretation, it's disingenuous to act as though tying gun rights to militias is some crazy modern liberal invention and not a perfectly reasonable interpretation of the text. To say nothing of the fact that every right in the Constitution is subject to regulation.
It's a perfectly reasonable interpretation of the text from someone who just reads it without any concern for context or definition. For anyone who has actually studied the law then yes, it is a crazy modern liberal invention.[/quote]
Weren't you earlier complaining about how liberals twist the text to fit their preferences?

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PostSep 02, 2016#115

MarkHaversham wrote:
I did not assess the court by political party, but rather by using Martin-Quinn scores (which is why I said it was a 6-3 split, rather than 7-2). Also, I don't think "the justices didn't know this was a culture-war issue they were supposed to be taking partisan sides on" is an argument in favor of RvW being a partisan decision. Anyway, I'm not saying M-Q scores were given to us by an infallible god, but do you have a basis for rating the 1973 court as overwhelmingly liberal, aside from disagreeing with it on Roe v. Wade? [/quote]

I haven't heard of the Martin-Quinn scores and so I thank you for enlightening me with them and I look forward to researching them more. My perception of the 1973 court comes from many scholars' opinions of the court. This includes, ironically, President Obama's. Here's a piece of a New York Times article titled "Obama Criticizes Liberal Supreme Courts of '60s and '70s" (http://www.nytimes.com/2010/04/30/us/po ... .html?_r=0).
WASHINGTON — In a seeming rejection of liberal orthodoxy, President Obama has spoken disparagingly about liberal victories before the Supreme Court in the 1960s and 1970s — suggesting that justices made the “error” of overstepping their bounds and trampling on the role of elected officials.

Mr. Obama made his remarks Wednesday night against a backdrop of recent Supreme Court rulings in which conservative justices have struck down laws favored by liberals, most notably a January ruling that nullified restrictions on corporate spending to influence elections.

“It used to be that the notion of an activist judge was somebody who ignored the will of Congress, ignored democratic processes, and tried to impose judicial solutions on problems instead of letting the process work itself through politically,” Mr. Obama said.

“And in the ’60s and ’70s, the feeling was — is that liberals were guilty of that kind of approach. What you’re now seeing, I think, is a conservative jurisprudence that oftentimes makes the same error.”

He added, “The concept of judicial restraint cuts both ways.”
Regardless, you raise some good points and I'll accept that I need to research more specifics.
MarkHaversham wrote: You're quite right that marriage is not defined in the constitution, which is why we have a Supreme Court to answer questions of how the constitutional rights relate to marriage. The court decided that marriage was a right belonging to all couples, not an institution that did or should exist solely for the purpose of heterosexual nuclear family stability. I suspect a key ingredient to this line of thinking is that allowing gays to marry does not hurt or really impact in any way the rights or lifestyles of anyone else. Nobody is forcing you to do anything except acknowledge a right for gay people to exist and associate freely. While historical precedent can be valuable, it's not sufficient to argue that we should continue discriminating because we've been doing so for a long time, therefore we should allow gay marriage or teaching literacy to minorities or whatever. Generally speaking, the court takes a dim view to restricting people's rights, absent those rights causing clear harm to others.
I don't think we're going to get anywhere with this because of the part I highlighted above. My contention is that's not the court's place. In a democratic society, that is the role of the legislature. That is creating law.

Also, I need to personally address your assertion that "Nobody is forcing you to do anything except acknowledge a right for gay people to exist and associate freely."

I have no problem acknowledging that. I think people should be free to love whoever they choose and I hope that makes them happy. I assert no moral or theological argument, and even think that gay couples should be allowed to have their union blessed by whatever religious tradition will do so. So that's a straw man argument.

The left, quite successfully, has portrayed everyone opposed to gay marriage as being motivated by a bigoted homophobia. And that's simply false. Sure, some are, but that's not my argument and that's not the argument that was presented by Hodges in Obergefell. Our opposition is motivated by two, succinct points.

1. Not allowing gay people to marry is not discrimination because, to be blunt, such a union isn't a marriage.
2. Redefining such a union to be included in the definition of marriage is a responsibility delegated to the states under the 10th Amendment and should be decided by them.
MarkHaversham wrote:Regardless, as you pointed out, the Constitution does not give a clear guidance on the limits of marriage rights, which puts this issue squarely in the purview of the SCOTUS, no law-twisting necessary.
That's not law-twisting, that's completely ignoring the law. That's completely ignoring the 10th Amendment.
10th Amendment: The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.
MarkHaversham wrote:Regarding the 2nd...

Weren't you earlier complaining about how liberals twist the text to fit their preferences?
Yeah, I was complaining about Roe, which stretched the "Right of Privacy" to include the right of a mother to intentionally kill her unborn offspring. That's a stretch. I also complained about Obergefell, which didn't twist text so much as inserting text where none existed.

Conversely, I don't see how defining the literal terms used in the text, such as "well-regulated" or "militia" is twisting the text. I would hope that if a justice, or really anyone, reads "A well-regulated militia" they would ask themselves "Well what do they mean by 'well-regulated'?" at which point they could do some research and see that in context of the 1780's "well-regulated" meant "well-trained" or "well-equipped". And then they could do some historical research on what composed the militia in those days, and also what U.S. Code says the militia is today (all able-bodied males between the ages of 17-45).

And then they could do some research on how the 2nd Amendment reads in context to the rest of the Constitution. At this point, they should realize that at no other point is the phrase "the right of the People" used in any way that isn't meant to guarantee an individual right.

So, to imply that this interpretation is "text-twisting" is simply wishful thinking at best. When you do the basic research into the 2nd Amendment, regarding the definitions and contexts that I alluded to previously, you realize that the 2nd Amendment is rather blunt and straightforward.

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PostSep 02, 2016#116

shimmy wrote: I haven't heard of the Martin-Quinn scores and so I thank you for enlightening me with them and I look forward to researching them more. My perception of the 1973 court comes from many scholars' opinions of the court. This includes, ironically, President Obama's. Here's a piece of a New York Times article titled "Obama Criticizes Liberal Supreme Courts of '60s and '70s"
That's an interesting point of reference. I'm actually familiar with a line of argument in liberal circles that Roe v. Wade politicized a non-political issue and thereby harmed abortion rights in the long term. But, I don't know whether I put much stock in that line of reasoning. To me, bodily autonomy seems to be a pretty integral part of liberty.
1. Not allowing gay people to marry is not discrimination because, to be blunt, such a union isn't a marriage.
2. Redefining such a union to be included in the definition of marriage is a responsibility delegated to the states under the 10th Amendment and should be decided by them.
The second point is moot if you consider marriage to be a right, since the 14th amendment stipulates equal protection, in the same way that states can't enact racial segregation under the 10th.

It's your first point that really gets at the key issue, which is whether it's valid to define marriage as heterosexual and dismiss gay marriage under the "gays are free to get heterosexually married just like everyone else". I would point out that the "one man, one woman marriage" definition is definitely not the only one used throughout history, so I don't really think that line of argument is very strong. I think there's ample evidence for both declaring marriage a right, and limiting marriage to heterosexual coupling. If you want to argue from historical marriage definitions, you should really be advocating for polygamy.
I would hope that if a justice, or really anyone, reads "A well-regulated militia" they would ask themselves "Well what do they mean by 'well-regulated'?" at which point they could do some research and see that in context of the 1780's "well-regulated" meant "well-trained" or "well-equipped". And then they could do some historical research on what composed the militia in those days, and also what U.S. Code says the militia is today (all able-bodied males between the ages of 17-45).
Conservative ex-Chief Justice Warren Berger has something to say about that, more succinctly than I could.
...It was not surprising that the provision concerning firearms emerged in very simple terms with the significant predicate -- basing the right on the necessity for a "well regulated militia," a state army.

In the two centuries since then -- with two world wars and some lesser ones -- it has become clear, sadly, that we have no choice but to maintain a standing national army while still maintaining a "militia" by way of the National Guard, which can be swiftly integrated into the national defense forces.

Americans also have a right to defend their homes, and we need not challenge that. Nor does anyone seriously question that the Constitution protects the right of hunters to own and keep sporting guns for hunting game any more than anyone would challenge the right to own and keep fishing rods and other equipment for fishing -- or to own automobiles. To "keep and bear arms" for hunting today is essentially a recreational activity and not an imperative of survival, as it was 200 years ago; "Saturday night specials" and machine guns are not recreational weapons and surely are as much in need of regulation as motor vehicles.

Americans should ask themselves a few questions. The Constitution does not mention automobiles or motorboats, but the right to keep and own an automobile is beyond question; equally beyond question is the power of the state to regulate the purchase or the transfer of such a vehicle and the right to license the vehicle and the driver with reasonable standards. In some places, even a bicycle must be registered, as must some household dogs.

If we are to stop this mindless homicidal carnage, is it unreasonable:

to provide that, to acquire a firearm, an application be made reciting age, residence, employment and any prior criminal convictions?
to required that this application lie on the table for 10 days (absent a showing for urgent need) before the license would be issued?
that the transfer of a firearm be made essentially as with that of a motor vehicle?
to have a "ballistic fingerprint" of the firearm made by the manufacturer and filed with the license record so that, if a bullet is found in a victim's body, law enforcement might be helped in finding the culprit?
These are the kind of questions the American people must answer if we are to preserve the "domestic tranquillity" promised in the Constitution.
The notion that anybody in the US has a God-given right to brandish a firearm at the Zoo is basically an invention of the NRA and 21st century activist conservative justices. The notion of all regulation being antithetical to the 2nd amendment has never been a widely-held opinion of Americans; not in 1780, and not today.

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PostSep 02, 2016#117

MarkHaversham wrote: That's an interesting point of reference. I'm actually familiar with a line of argument in liberal circles that Roe v. Wade politicized a non-political issue and thereby harmed abortion rights in the long term. But, I don't know whether I put much stock in that line of reasoning. To me, bodily autonomy seems to be a pretty integral part of liberty.
Yeah, I've heard Roe referenced in that fashion when hearing some scholars talk about Obergefell. Their argument is that, especially in the case of gay marriage, the nation was going that way anyways in regards to popular opinion. The Supreme Court jumping in and forcing it on states that weren't willing to accept it yet, for lack of better terms, just entrenched the issue in the culture wars. I do think that gay marriage is much more complicated than abortion. Pretty much, the abortion lines are drawn over the debate as to when life begins and has value. As long as people disagree on that, then they'll disagree on abortion.

As to your point about the historical argument regarding marriage, my intent wasn't to provide that argument in a "This is how we've always done it, so let's keep doing it" manner, but rather to demonstrate the reasoning for it being recognized by the government in the first place. But you're right, there's strong and valid arguments on both sides of the debate. And that's exactly why I don't think it was the Supreme Court's place to make it law.

And finally, I'm personally more nuanced when it comes to gun rights than many pro-2A people (which is why I let my NRA membership expire). As a strong advocate of the 2nd Amendment, the people open carrying in Target drive me crazy. It's just stupid and rude. I could live with universal background checks to include private sales (there's already background checks for every other purchase) and even with waiting periods. It's when it comes to weapon bans and registration that I dig in.

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PostSep 03, 2016#118

shimmy wrote:But you're right, there's strong and valid arguments on both sides of the debate. And that's exactly why I don't think it was the Supreme Court's place to make it law.
I think settling debates on what the law means is exactly the purpose of the Supreme Court.

Edit: To be more specific in this case, some circuit courts determined the law said gay marriage was a right, and some decided the opposite, so SCOTUS had to step in and decide one way or the other.

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PostSep 05, 2016#119

How 'bout the HD78 primary redo?

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PostSep 05, 2016#120

The election board didn't come out of the HD78 court fight looking too great. Anyone want to prognosticate about the eventual outcome of the new election?

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PostSep 06, 2016#121

hiddeninput wrote:The election board didn't come out of the HD78 court fight looking too great. Anyone want to prognosticate about the eventual outcome of the new election?
Low turnout is almost always going to favor the incumbent.

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PostSep 06, 2016#122

Looks like Jay Nixon wasn't fond of the city Election Board. He removed two members today.

http://news.stlpublicradio.org/post/nix ... ions-board

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PostSep 14, 2016#123

http://www.stltoday.com/news/local/govt ... 2ae03.html

http://www.stltoday.com/news/local/metr ... 63cdf.html

Looks like the Post-Dispatch is getting serious about reporting on the Hubbards. I remain skeptical that Franks can pull off a win in the do-ever primary this Friday, but if he does, it might mark the beginning of the end for the 5th Ward machine.

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PostSep 14, 2016#124

Is it possible to disbar the Hubbards from running due to the facts and amount of evidence from these stories? I'm not a voter fraud conspiracist by any means, but this is blatant disregard for regulations and rules.

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PostSep 15, 2016#125

chaifetz10 wrote:Is it possible to disbar the Hubbards from running due to the facts and amount of evidence from these stories? I'm not a voter fraud conspiracist by any means, but this is blatant disregard for regulations and rules.
It would probably be impossible to remove her from the ballot before Friday.

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